Consider the following statements regarding the Preamble of the Indian Constitution: 1. The Preamble is enforceable in a court of law. 2. It has been amended only once so far by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

💡 Solution & Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because the Preamble is non-justiciable, meaning its provisions cannot be enforced in courts of law. Statement 2 is correct as the Preamble has been amended only once in 1976 by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, which inserted the terms socialist, secular, and integrity. The Supreme Court in the Berubari Union case held that the Preamble is not a part of the Constitution, but later in the Kesavananda Bharati case ruled that it is an integral part.